MICAH 5:2 Complete Jewish Bible

Micah 5:1... Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)

But you, Beit-Lechem near Efrat,so small among the clans of Y’hudah,out of you will come forth to me the future ruler of Isra’el,whose origins are far in the past, back in ancient times.

Neither is there SALVATION in any other; for there is NO OTHER NAME+ under Heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
Acts 4:12

That at the NAME of YESHUA+ every knee shall bow, of beings in Heaven, beings in earth, and beings under the earth; and that every tongue should proclaim that YESHUA+ MASHIYACH+ is LORD, to the Glory of ALAHA, His+ FATHER.
Philippians 2:10-11

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Friday, January 5, 2018

GALATIANS 2:14 ~ ~ ~ An AENT Subterfuge Instead of a Translation

RE-POST FROM 8-22-2014
 
... for TRUTH is FALLEN in the street

Let us take a  SECOND look at the translation from the "Golden, Best and Historic"  ( aka Amazon reviews) of the Netzarim Publishing House's version of its translation of the Aramaic Text of Galatians 2:14, edited by Andrew Gabriel Roth, called the "Aramaic-English New Testament" ( AENT).  
 

In the previous post, the analysis of the 26 words of the Aramaic TEXT itself is presented for Galatians 2:14.  That analysis is the BASIS, therefore, of this discussion.

The analysis reveals this literal translation: 

And when I saw that they were not going uprightly in the Truth of the GOOD NEWS, I said to Peter before them all: if you ( singular "you") who are Jewish are living Aramaenly and not Jewishly ( Judaically), how are you compelling the Gentiles that Jewishly ( Judaically) they should live? 

Here is the same verse, translated by Mr. Roth: 

But behold! When those who did not follow righteously the truth of the GOOD NEWS, said I to Peter, to the eyes of them all,  " If you who are Jehudeans live as Arameans; why do you urge the Gentiles who have joined themselves to Yehuda to live as Yehudeans ? 


The Discussion... to be Fair...

Some of these 13 errors are grammatical and, although unethical, are not horrendous because they only change the meaning of the Aramaic TEXT by slight nuances, in the English translation.  

The ADVERB errors, for instance, are that type, as well as the literally word-for-word translation of the idiom. One adverb error, however, is major, changing the sense of the passage. 

Adverbs which end in AiYT are oftentimes translated as "... as pagans"  instead of "paganly" for the sake of making sense in English. 

However, that liberty should not be taken if such a phrase CHANGES THE MEANING of the verse. 

More troublesome are the VERB errors, such as omitting "I saw" and substituting an interjection. The verb errors simply are not kosher. Neglecting the idea of continuous action, putting it into the past emphatic, is also not kosher.  

Much more troublesome, however,is when the sense of the message is changed, like having  The Apostle Paul addressing ALL OF THE JEWISH CHRISTIANS in the room... instead of addressing The Apostle Peter... as the TEXT actually says. 

And of course, it goes without saying that translating an entire clause ( no idiomatic expression here ! ) WITHOUT an ARAMAIC TEXT  is  beyond grievous: it is shamefully deceptive. 


Here is Mr. Roth's verse again, with the errors in translation high-lighted, underlined, or carot-ed ( ^ ) . 

But behold! ^1 When those who did not follow righteously the truth of the GOOD NEWS, said I to Peter, to the eyes of them all,  " If you who are Yehudeans live as Arameans;         ^^^2 why do you urge the Gentiles 
who have joined themselves to Yehuda to live as Yehudeans ?


The Error Field 

behold!  = This exclamatory word is not in the Aramaic TEXT. The AENT added it into the translation with no substance to back the addition. 

 ^1    = The words:  " I saw"  or "I beheld"  are in the Aramaic TEXT.  The AENT omitted both the pronoun subject "I" and the past tense of the verb, "saw". It must be translated as "I saw" or " I beheld". 

did ... follow     = This verb cannot be "follow" because it does not have the Aramaic preposition "after" ( BTR ) with it.  

It cannot be "did" follow, either, because it is an active participle ~  ... ending in --- ing , which is NOT equivalent to the English emphatic tense of did or do  + verb. 

In addition, the present active participle indicates a CONTINUOUS action, not a past action as "did follow" means.  

 to the eyes of them all,    =  This is an idiom and should not be translated literally, but rather true to the meaning: before them, in the presence of them, before them all. ( It is a surprise that Mr. Roth seemed to have missed this rather common idiom.)

NOW, The MAJOR Errors ...   


Yehudeans  = Here is a major error, of greater magnitude than the previous errors. This word is an ADVERB, not a noun and certainly not a plural noun.

Making it a plural noun here CHANGES the English verb "are" from going with the singular "you" ( as is proper English)  ~  into going with a plural  "you ! "  

However, the Aramaic TEXT tells us that the "you"  here is singular.  

The Apostle Paul is addressing ONE PERSON:  The Apostle Peter.  The Apostle Paul is NOT addressing his comment to all of the Yehudeans in the room, even though it was said "before them all"  !  

 Arameans = Same problem as above: This word is an adverb ending in  ~ ly    and is NOT a noun, NOT a plural noun, and the comment NOT addressed to a roomful of Jewish Christians, but rather before them all  to one person.  

It is addressed to ONE PERSON: The Apostle Peter.

  ^^^2  = three words omitted:  " and not Jewishly..."
These words ARE FOUND in the Aramaic TEXT at exactly this point in the TEXT ! 

why  = This Aramaic word is NOT the Aramaic "why." This Aramaic word in Galatians 2:14 is always translated as "how, as," or "in what manner. "  

However, in this one verse, translators seem to follow the Greek and translate it as "why." ( Why they do this, I do not know.) 

do  urge  =  This verb is within reason but the verb itself is again an active participle indicating CONTINUOUS action and should be translated: "you ( one man ) are urging". 

who have joined themselves to Yehuda = NO ARAMAIC TEXT for this clause
  • Not in the Peshitta. 
  • Not in the Khabouris C. 
  • Not in the Khabouris T.  
  • Not in the British and Foreign Bible Society manuscripts, either. 
Where did it originate?
How did it come to be "translated" ? 
or
How can one translate a TEXT that is not there ?

 to live = This verb is 3rd masculine plural and Imperfect Tense , not an infinitive.  Hence:  they should live 

Yehudeans  = Again, this word is an ADVERB which ought to end in  ~ ly  . It is not a noun and it is not plural. 


For What PURPOSE... ? 

What is the purpose behind an obviously intelligent translator who is quite well-versed in the Aramaic and Hebrew languages to translate in such an off-hand way ? 

Was there NO accountability to others who could read Aramaic? 

Was there an agenda promoted by the publishing house?




And judgment is turned away backward,
and justice standeth afar off: 

for truth is fallen in the street,
and equity cannot enter.

+  +  +

How I pity the person who makes a subterfuge of the translation of the Sacred Text for his own purposes. 

Come out of her, 
My+ People,
 and touch not the unclean thing. 





2 comments:

Unknown said...

Dear Ms./Mrs./Miss Hannah:

As to your statement: "'Was there an agenda promoted by the publishing house?,'" if there is an agenda, what is your opinion as to what that agenda might be?

Ken, a Seeker of Truth and Lover of YHWH and His Son Yahushua ha Mashiach.

PS - I have a copy of the AENT, 5th Edition.

Sister Judith Hannah said...

Dear Mr. Kenneth Jelladian...

Thank you for your comment.

Truthfully, I am mystified as to what all was involved by, in , and with Mr. Roth and his publishing house when making this translation.

Some verses are so poorly translated that I marvel that they would publish it. There was a committee that reviewed the work, I believe it states, in the introduction. It seems that ALL the committee members could read Hebrew and Aramaic and English.

Why they would allow TEXT to be omitted in the translation of any verse of Scripture ... and TRANSLATION to be made of TEXT THAT WAS NOT THERE ... is simply something I cannot fathom.

It seems the purpose is to sway the Scriptures to "support" doctrine... but these translation errors would make SERIOUS SEEKERS flee.

In other words, if the doctrine they claim is correct ( i.e., Netzarim ) , then it should STAND WITHOUT TRANSLATION manipulations of omission, insertion, grammatical errors, linguistic errors, and the like.

I have found SO MANY such errors in the AENT.

Furthermore, I started reading the AENT with a very open mind, but I have learned to always, always check any translation with the original TEXT and as many language helps as accessible.

Checking with Dukhrana.com / Peshitta Tools ( tab at the top ) , and the Comprehensive Aramaic Lexicon has been invaluable when trying to verify a "strange" translation of a verse.

However, I always urge others to CHECK THE TRANSLATION FOR THEMSELVES. Those two sites are user-friendly for speakers of English.

I hope this answers your question.

Sincerely,
Sr. Judith Hannah + + +
Order of the GOOD SHEPHERD+