MICAH 5:2 Complete Jewish Bible

Micah 5:1... Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)

But you, Beit-Lechem near Efrat,so small among the clans of Y’hudah,out of you will come forth to me the future ruler of Isra’el,whose origins are far in the past, back in ancient times.

Neither is there SALVATION in any other; for there is NO OTHER NAME+ under Heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
Acts 4:12

That at the NAME of YESHUA+ every knee shall bow, of beings in Heaven, beings in earth, and beings under the earth; and that every tongue should proclaim that YESHUA+ MASHIYACH+ is LORD, to the Glory of ALAHA, His+ FATHER.
Philippians 2:10-11

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Friday, April 24, 2020

Mary's HUSBAND... or... Adopted Father ?



Sometimes the scholars can identify with  the Apostle's epithet..."your much learning hath made thee mad!" [i.e., confused, out of touch with reality].

Such may be the case here . . . if we stop at Matthew 1:16.  But if we read further to verse 1:18, we discover "who" Yosip really is . . . and he is NOT Mariam's "father." 

 Now the birth of Y'SHUA+, the MASHIYACH was like this: While Maryam His+ mother was betrothed to Yosip, without them being united, she was found pregnant by the RUACH haKODESH.

  in Matthew 1:16, footnote 5, of an acclaimed Aramaic New Testament accompanied with a highly-edited English translation. This is Andrew Roth's AENT.

This scholarly editor has made a statement that simply has no basis in historical fact found either in the Scriptures themselves or in any other place! It is astounding that such a statement could be found placed even near the Holy Scriptures, as surely the clear, blessed, and Holy Aramaic New Testament is. 

Here is this statement (and I quote):

"... Ancient Aramaic ends at verse 17, not 25. The text not only establishes the subject, but shifts from "background history" into the present from intro to body. This means that the Yosip [Joseph] in verse 16 (the guardian or adopted father of Miriyam (Mary) is not the same  Yosip as the husband of Miriyam in verse 19."  



Nowhere is it to be found that the Hebrew virgin Mariam had an ADOPTED "FATHER" !  Or, in other words, nowhere is it to be found that the Hebrew virgin Mariam was adopted !  The Bible is fairly clear on who sired who, even when the story is not pretty and the situation not righteous... because you can't fool GOD!

So, let's look at the verse, Matthew 1:16 in question. We will look at it through the Aramaic, the Hebrew transliteration, the Latin, Pierpont and Robison's Greek Text,  and 3 Aramaic-English translations (not the Aramaic volume in this study, mind you). Here it is. Note the word in yellow.



ܝܥܩܘܒ ܐܘܠܕ ܠܝܘܣܦ ܓܒܪܗ ܕܡܪܝܡ ܕܡܢܗ ܐܬܝܠܕ ܝܫܘܥ ܕܡܬܩܪܐ ܡܫܝܚܐ


 1:16 Matthew- יעקוב אולד ליוסף גברה דמרים דמנה אתילד ישׁוע דמתקרא משׁיחא


Matthew 1:16 -
Iacob autem genuit Ioseph virum Mariæ, de qua natus est Iesus, qui vocatur CHRISTUS


Peshitta (Aramaic) English translations are from John W. Ethridge, James Murdock and George Lamsa , respectively.

Matthew 1:16 in each translation:

Jakub begat Jauseph, husband of Mariam, of whom was born JESHU who is called the Meshicha.

Jacob begat Joseph, the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus who is called the Messiah.

Jacob begot Joseph,  the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus who is called  Christ.


 ܓܒܪܗ     GOWRA = man, husband, person


From From the Syriac Electronic Data Retrieval Archive ( SEDRA) by Dr. George A . Kiraz, distributed by the Syriac Computing Institute. Peshitta verses are taken from the Peshitta NT published by the British and Foreign Bible Society. Found on the DUKHRANA BIBLICAL RESEARCH, PESHITTA TOOLS.

[As an aside: the Dukhrana Biblical Research website is an excellent website to use as a study tool. It has an English grammatical analysis of every Aramaic word on the Peshitta Tool page, called SEDRA so that any English-speaking student of the Aramaic Scriptures may take advantage of this good tool.]

The word in question in all of those languages is HUSBAND. It can also mean man or person, according to the SEDRA. Thus, in addition to having no historic basis for making Mary to have an adopted father (whatever that is) , the Latin, Greek (Nestle's is the same as Pierpont's here in this verse), and all the English translations of the Peshitta previously done by Aramaic scholars themselves ... all these versions agree that the lineage listed in Matthew 1 ... regardless of where the verses stop... are pointing to the lineage of Y'SHUA+ the Divine MASHIYACH, son of David.

The Aramaic Word GOWRA

Now we will come to the Aramaic word gowra which is at the heart of the argument. GOWRA is equivalent to the Hebrew  root GBR. [The Aramaic will oftentimes use "W" instead of the Hebrew "B" or "V"]. The Hebrew geber means "mighty man." [Strong's 1396-1401]  Interestingly enough, a modern Hebrew dictionary lists giborah as "man, male, virile, virility".

Paul Younan's interlinear translation of the Peshitta translates gowra  as kinsman instead of HUSBAND of Miriyam.

Thus the text would read, " Jacob begot Joseph, the kinsman of Mary, of whom was born JESUS Who+ was called The MESSIAH."    That rather misses the mark because in a lineage, one would have to be a father, son, or husband, not a cousin.

However, the footnote 5 in the Aramaic New Testament in question points out this interesting language fact: " The word gowra designates a protector-male or guardian...."   The footnote points out that gowra  is used in at least one other place in the New Testament to mean father instead of husband.   Hence, the confusion. Therefore, this Aramaic New Testament translation inserts GUARDIAN , making the verse read:

Jacob begot Joseph, the GUARDIAN of Mary, of whom was born JESUS,  WHO+ was called the CHRIST

>>> The clue to unravel this confusion is found in verse 18 from the Aramaic English New Testament:

Now the birth of Y'SHUA+, the MASHIYACH was like this: While Maryam His+ mother was betrothed to Yosip, without them being united, she was found pregnant by the RUACH haKODESH.

Thus in the Aramaic language, "GUARDIAN" , was precisely WHO Joseph , the husband of Mary, was... before the DIVINE BIRTH of Y'SHUA+ the MASHIYACH  !

Joseph was indeed the guardian, protector-male over the Virgin of Israel until he performed the part of a husband in their physical union... which took place AFTER THE DIVINE BIRTH of The SON+ of GOD, Y'SHUA ha MASHIYACH.

Bless GOD! That wonderful Aramaic Scripture text is the only ancient text that captures the difference and points it out in the text itself. In later verses, gowra changes to ba'alah...  which has as one of its meanings husband. 


THE ERROR here comes in the footnote of Andrew Roth's AENT.    Mr. Roth states that Mariam had an adopted FATHER . He identifies Mariam's guardian as her father, instead of her husband in Matthew's lineage of Y'SHU+ ! 

Scripture corrects the AENT in verse 18, identifying the only YOSIP in the lineage as Mariam's husband,  as can be noted by the careful reader. 

So YES, guardian is very precise; it can be any male-protector, including a father. 

 However, here in this lineage, HUSBAND is who this guardian is, according to verse 18 . . . the very next verse pertaining to lineage. Verse 17 simply delineates the centuries and includes no persons.   
 
+  +  +

In the name of THE FATHER,
WHO created thee;
HIS Beloved, HOLY SON+,
Y'SHUA+  haMASHIYACH 
Who+ saves thee;
And their blessed HOLY SPIRIT,
Who sanctifieds thee.

9 comments:

Dianne said...

I'm confused...I thought you were proving the aent to be wrong. Your article seems to be proving its accuracy.????

Sister Judith Hannah said...

Dear Momma D... Thank you for your interest and comment. I'm sorry for perhaps adding confusion to theses issues! Let me try to clear it up briefly.

The ARAMAIC text itself of the New Testament is excellent, as far as I have gone through this volume. Aramaic is an old, old language like Hebrew. It seems to me that it is a simplified form of Hebrew, if I am understanding it correctly... sort of like the language "of the people" instead of the learned. (Hoping I'm not offending anyone here!)

The term GOWRA was used by the editor of this volume to cast aspersions and doubt upon the lineage of Y'SHUA+ haMASHIYACH.

What I am seeing with GOWRA is that his translation that says Joseph, Mary's husband, was her GUARDIAN is accurate. Joseph WAS indeed the guardian of Mary and the Divine Babe in her womb before Our LORD was born. Joseph did not perform the part of the physical husband until AFTER HIS+ birth.

So, the translation for GOWRA is actually very, very accurate and is only revealed in the ARAMAIC text, not the Greek.

BUT... in the footnote, the editor misinterprets the REASON Joseph the husband of Mary was called her GUARDIAN. He missed the point !

Mary did NOT have an "adopted" father, nor is "Messiah Ben Joseph" {i.e., Messiah the son of Joseph ] a Scriptural title or identity for Our LORD JESUS.

Both of those statements are false and misleading.

If Y'SHUA+ haMASHIYACH is identified as the "Son of Joseph", then eventually, the editor will lead the reader to question or attack the virgin birth of CHRIST.

So now, do you understand clearly my contention with this volume?

If not, please ask more questions!

Sister Judith Hannah

Sister Judith Hannah said...

Dear haDereck,

Thank you for your interest, as usual. I have been out-of-town for a week and have not had the opportunity to deal with my blogs.

I would NOT publish such information as you sent me from Mr. Younan because it is ESSENTIALLY the same info (not anything new) that I am discussing in the GOWRA blog.

Please do understand that my blogspot is not to argue down those ALREADY CONVINCED that this English translation of the Aramaic is correct; every man is accountable for what he says "amen" to !

But rather, my blogspot is to help the SEEKER with research he may not be able to find himself... in order to ascertain if this translation is truthful in its interpretation of Holy Scripture.

And, you are well aware, that I am showing that the English translation plus footnotes are quite perverted from the Truth, in many important areas.

I wish it were not so.

The Aramaic text is excellent, itself.

The "Netzarim" overlays, however, are pervasive and inaccurate, to put it charitably. The very Scriptures that could lead the Netzarim followers out of their confusion are so perverted in this translation (as in Galatians) that it ends up calling "black" WHITE... and vice versa.

More's the pity.

Please write again if you have a real question, but understand, this blog is not a platform to be used to promote Netzarim doctrine.

May Y'SHUA+ ha MASHIYACH+, the promised Mashiyach ben David, lead you into all truth.

Sincerely,
Sister Judith Hannah + + +

Unknown said...

If you look at the whole chapter of Matthew 1, you will see that there are supposed to be a total of 42 generations (14+14+14=42) how ever if you write them down there are only 41 generations if the man Joseph is Mary's husband. If the Joseph listed here were her father, then you have 42 generations like it is supposed to be. Also look at Luke 3:23 where it states that Jesus as being supposed was the son of Joseph, the son of Eli (Heli in the KJV) but in Matthew the father of Joseph was Jacob. This clearly says to me that The lineage in Matthew was the lineage of Mary, and THAT Joseph was Mary's father, and the lineage of Luke was the lineage of Joseph, the husband of Mary. There are two different men named Joseph, one was her father and the other her husband. I welcome your comments subject: bible study to JimVernon325@gmail.com

Sister Judith Hannah said...

Dear Mr. Vernon...

Thank you for your response and interest; you certainly have put some thought upon this issue.

I have pondered some of the very things you have mentioned, as have many, many others. There is much written about the two, discrepant genealogy lists of Our LORD JESUS CHRIST.

First of all, I take a literal interpretation of the Sacred Text.

That is why I spend time studying the Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic, and sometimes Latin versions of Scripture.

So, on that basis, I see NOTHING STATED that the Hebrew virgin Mariam's lineage is listed in EITHER Matthew OR Luke: only the lineage of JESUS through his legal guardian-father, Joseph.

In my research I have found that BOTH genealogies were considered JOSEPH'S by the Early Christians.

I do not know why some theologians say the Luke ( or the Matthew) account is "Mary's lineage," simply because we humans cannot puzzle out the discrepancies between the two lists.

I DO understand that the Jewish lineage was traced through the fathers, not the mothers. That fact itself would seem to over-rule the opinion that the Hebrew virgin Mariam's lineage would be listed for The Messiah.

Also, if Scripture states that there were 3 sets of 14 generations ( Mt. 1:17) ... and I could not count them... my conclusion would have to be "Scripture is RIGHT; I am missing something here or not understanding how the ancients counted generations."

I greatly appreciated the Aramaic concept of GOWRA or GaBaR in Matthew.

It implants right there in the genealogy of Our LORD the correct understanding.

The reader of the Sacred Text is able to then comprehend that The HOLY FATHER established a GUARDIAN , the betrothed man Joseph, to protect both the Hebrew virgin Mariam and the Divine BABE, JESUS.

The word "father" is a very basic word in the Aramaic language.

It is used quite frequently in the Aramaic ( and Hebrew and Greek and Latin) Sacred Text.

If "father" were meant to be understood for GOWRA, I believe The HOLY SPIRIT would have inspired and instructed Matthew to write "father" instead of GOWRA.

I have read in the Early Christian writings that Joseph MAY have had a legal father ( i.e., he carried his father's name and legal lineage) but was sired by his uncle, according to the Levitical law pertaining to widows.

Thus, it is POSSIBLE that such a case existed with Joseph. That would explain why Joseph is listed with two different fathers.

However, no-one actually KNOWS this for a provable fact.

There is a lot more research that could be done, I suppose, on this issue, but most of it is conjecture I think.



The MAIN issue is that Our LORD JESUS CHRIST was the SON+ of DAVID, which would make HIM+ "Messiah ben David."

And, of that, there can be no doubt, in either lineage.

Hoping this is edifying and helpful, dear friend.

Sincerely,
Sr. Judith Hannah + + +

Robert J. Moore said...

I personally believe Matthew's genealogy to that of Mary thus it not only reconciles the protection of the 14s of generations, but also meets the prophecy of Gen3:15 in which it is the Seed of the Woman that will bruise his head.

It is also suggested elsewhere that Mary had no brothers to look after her as per custom and the reason why John was asked by Jesus to take care of her... this would mean Mary inheriting from her father and Yeshua from his mother.

I look forward to your thoughts on this.

Sister Judith Hannah said...

Dear Mr. Moore,

It seems to me there is simply SO MUCH we do not either understand or grasp in how the Jewish lineage was reckoned.

What is unknown are the exact years in counting these generations. Scripture does not define that, does it ? [ If I am wrong, please correct me with book , chapter , and verse. ]

Also, it is unknown if there is something or someone skipped in the counting of the generations.

As far as counting the generations, the best resource I can find is the Jamieson, Fausset , and Brown, 1800’s Bible Commentary, Volume 3, Part 1, pages 2-3, remarks 1 and 2, which sheds some light on how the generations could be counted in Matthew 1.

What is also puzzling is HOW “fatherhood ” was counted.
Some have distinguished a legal father from a biological father although Scripture does not make that distinction in lineages.

Scripture does tell us that an Uncle should father a child for his dead brother via the dead brother’s widow, but the child would carry the dead brother’s name, instead of the Uncle’s name who physically begot the child. See Deuteronomy 25:5-6 and Luke 20:28.

Thus, some theorize that Joseph, the betrothed Guardian ( i.e., husband) of Maryam was “fathered” in this manner.

That circumstance then would account for Luke calling Joseph the son of Eli (Heli) and Matthew calling Joseph the son of Jacob. One listed the legal father of Joseph; the other listed the name of the “dead” father of Joseph.

One thing I noticed was that Luke’s account actually says: Joseph of Heli. ( Or , Eli ). It does NOT state specifically “son of” in the text.

[ The word for son is missing from the Greek ; the “of” in the Greek is indicated and simply “understood” by the genitive the = tou, in the grammar of the sentence. ]

Could that UNDERSTOOD “son of” found in Luke then be taken as a Grandparent or Great Grandparent, as do some of the narratives in the Old Covenant count (or identify) the “fathers” ?

I can think of at least one situation that especially stands out where the Grandfather, Rechab, is called “our father” by the sons of Jonadab who was the actual son of Rechab. Jeremiah 35:6

The other point to consider, which is very serious, is that Jeconiah was forbidden to inherit the throne of David, his father. ( i.e, King David, who was really Jeconiah’s Grandfather – that is, one of his Great-grandfathers somewhere along the line. ) . Jeremiah 22:28-30 .

Jeconiah ( Coniah in some verses ) did have sons but they were not allowed to ascend to the throne of David.
However, in Matthew’s list of fathers, Jeconiah is listed in Matthew 1:11 . . . “about the time they were carried away to Babylon.” In Matthew 1:12, Jeconiah’s sons were listed in the lineage.

We know that Scripture does NOT contradict Scripture so this fact must be reckoned with.

Thus it would be that Matthew’s lineage would follow the Jewish custom of listing the lineage of the LEGAL, LEVIRATE ( according to Levitical rules) father of JESUS, tracing His+ legal lineage back to Abraham and David.

The FACT is, though, no matter HOW we look at these lineages, one thing is CERTAIN: The LORD JESUS CHRIST came through the physical line of Abraham His+ father and King David, also His+ father, as well as through the established and recognized LEVIRATE ( according to the Levitical rules) system.

BOTH lineages are conclusive evidence that HE+ was the Long-Awaited Messiah of Israel and the SAVIOR+ of the World.

I hope information is helpful, in your consideration of the puzzlement.

Sincerely,
Sr. Judith Hannah + + +

Sister Judith Hannah said...

Dear Mr. Robert J. Moore,

Please see the new post on the GENEALOGY OF JESUS which RECONCILES the differences between Matthew 1:16 and Luke 3:23, from a highly authoritative source, Dr. Wilbur N. Pickering, of PRoject UNderground CHurch ( www. PRUNCH. com ).

See the post for the link to his comments and explanation of Luke 3:23.

Sincerely,
Yours for TRUTH+ in the inner man . . . and His+ Name is JESUS ( Y'SHUA+, in Hebrew, Y'SHU+ in Aramaic, JESUCRISTO in Spanish, etc. )

Sr. Judith Hannah + + +

Anonymous said...

Dear Friend Jorge,

I do not understand the point of your comment. Please re-state clearly your issue or opinion for our consideration. I would welcome your clarification.

Sincerely,
Yours for TRUTH+ in the inner man . . . and His+ Name is JESUS / JeSHUA

Sr. Judith Hannah + + +